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Posted By: us3webbs Marantz "sound"?? - 12/17/07 03:48 PM
I've always been puzzled by Marantz' reputation for a 'warm' sound. Any ideas on why this actually is? Is it in the amp? Processor? I struggle with understanding how 1s and 0s can be translated into 'warm' electrical analog signals.
Do Marantz' add something to the signal? Detract?
????

Just curious.

I get my Onkyo 805 in today! Very excited. I'll let you know what I think of it with the 80-500 system (previously driven by an old Marantz AV receiver....thus the question above)

ho ho ho
Posted By: JohnK Re: Marantz "sound"?? - 12/18/07 04:04 AM
Brady, that reputation has no more of a factual basis than, for example, that of Yamahas for being "bright". All competently designed amplifiers amplify transparently without adding any audible coloration to the sound. For a sonic character of that sort to exist there would have to be a substantial deviation from flat frequency response over a broad range of frequencies, but this simply doesn't exist and response is in fact flat, 20-20KHz. One of the great things about the current audio scene is the audibly flawless amplification we can get from moderately priced receivers.
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