(reposted from inside another thread)
From perusing the various reviews of the M50, I seem to get two contrary stories:
1. The M50 has quite a bit more clarity than the M40 (Alan Lofft says this a few times).
2. The M50 has less clarity than the M40s (mhw described them as having "muffled" vocals, expressing dissatisfaction with that term).
It seems like the M40 relative to the M3 adds more bass but loses a little midrange clarity; it would seem that some people are saying that the M50 has less of the latter problem, and some are saying that it has it more.
What's the theoretical effect of the second driver, to add more bass, or to improve the midrange, or both? Is there any consensus about how it actually sounds?
David
