I am aware that going with the m40 instead of m22 means losing a bit of midrange clarity but gaing more low end extension and general bass and midbass punch.
My question is how noticeable this loss in midrange clarity will be? Would it require an side by side a/b test and critical listening to notice the difference in midrange clarity between the m40 and m22 ti or could you tell the difference even when listening to the m22 in one room and then going into a another room to listen to the m40. The latter case would suggest a very noticeable difference that a casual listener like me will detect and be concerned with but if its the former case i will just go with the m40.
