That article contains some dubious information. I'll concentrate on the most blatant example here:
In reply to:
The situation is such that when the full range musical signal is applied to the terminals of a full-range speaker system, the woofer only gets sent low frequency signals, and the tweeter only gets sent high frequency signals. Once the crossover networks have been electrically separated, they still continue to function in the same manner, having a low impedance in their passband of application. This means that if separate speaker cables are hooked up for the woofer and it's portion of the network, and the tweeter, and it's portion of the network, not only have the speakers and the frequency's directed and divided for them, but the two separate speaker cables will now also carry different signals, the woofer cable mostly the lows, and the tweeter cable mostly the highs.
Picture the binding posts on a biwirable speaker. Now, think of the jumpers connecting the tweeter and woofer posts as just another length of cable -- that's all a jumper is, anyway. So even when you haven't biwired, you're still using two cables.
Now remove the jumper and run two cables to the speaker (i.e. biwire them). The only difference here is that the "jumper" is now in fact the terminal on the amplifier to which both wires are connected. You've simply moved the point where both wires touch closer to the amp.
So, continuing with this image, would a speaker still be considered bi-wired if the point where one wire split into two was one quarter of the way between the amp and the speaker? Halfway? 3/4 of the way? 9/10 of the way?
Think about it.