But if the object was to state just the lack of correlation between frequency alone and power requirements, it really is that simple. The reason for my comment above was that I've seen some discussions of bass frequencies that look on wavelength as if it was a physical object that had to be "pushed" by the power. So, a 40Hz wavelength of about 28 feet(1130 feet per second/40)would need more power to push it(because it's "bigger") than a 400Hz wavelength of about 2.8 feet. Actually of course, wavelength only represents the distance the wave travels until the next wave cycle starts(again 1130/40 equals 28 feet)and has no relationship whatever to required power.
If a different factor, impedance, is to be discussed, this of course has a relationship with current, but less than is sometimes imagined. Using Ohm's Law(current equals square root of power divided by impedance)in my example above and if 1 watt is used for 400Hz(at say 8 ohms)the current for that is .353 ampere(square root 1/8)and the .1 watt used for 40Hz(at say 4 ohms)results in a lower current of .158 ampere(square root .1/4). If both frequencies were played at 80dB(and both 4 ohms)the current for each would be the same .5 ampere(square root 1/4).
As to dynamic peaks, obviously they require more power, but the same basic principle of audio technology applies: the power is determined by the loudness at the peak and has nothing to do with the frequency at that point.
