As John said, the usual way one measures an amp is to drive it until the clipping is contributing 0.3% to the THD.
Maybe I'm being pedantic, but thats not what John said at all, thats what the magazine article implied.
What John wrote was:
Actual clipping shown by flattening of the top of the waveform doesn't occur at any specific THD level, but certainly in all cases would be greatly in excess of 1.0%.
So, is there an accepted 'industry standard', or is this one of those audiophile things that is endlessly debated?
By the way Zimm. I am not implying that you are flogging a dead horse, just asking questions about something I do not quite understand.
