I think it's clear that a properly designed double blind test would give significant results one way or another.
As to the burden of proof - why would one side bear a greater burden than the other?
There are 2 propositions [1] all amps sound the same; [2] not all amps sound the same. Perhaps you think that the first proposition is so well settled that it is the challenging proposition which bears the burden. Neither proposition deserves any primacy absent proof.
Now, although a well designed double blind test may provide more forceful proof of one or the other, it is not the only evidence with force. People who have listened to different amps in otherwise identical systems report they've heard differences to which they ascribe a quality (like it more, like it less, different but dunno). Folks who claim there is no difference between amps rely on theory, rather than their ears. Who has the burden? I think the folks intent on proving a theory which stands at odds with experience.
Last edited by 2x6spds; 05/01/04 04:15 PM.
